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#1
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Comment: There is an email circulating which states that when Christ was
crucified there was no word to explain the pain and suffering he endured so the word "excruciating" was derived. Do you know if that is true? |
#3
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It's from Latin excruciare, from cruciare, to crucify. (Collins) So it does literally mean "a pain like the pain of crucifixion".
On the other hand, Jesus wasn't the only person ever to be crucified, and people at the time weren't speaking English... |
#4
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Lies! Lies! Blasphemous lies!!
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#5
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Which part? The company in crucifiction or the English?
Seaboe [who assumes MM was joking and is playing along] |
#6
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All of the above. Next you'll be saying He wasn't blond.
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#7
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My 'Shorter OED on Historical Principles', volume one, page 698 says it comes from the Latin for 'torment' ('cruciare' which itself comes from the Latin for 'cross' ('crux').
The earliest date the dictionary gives for 'excruciate' is 1570. It gives a quote by Nashe and another one dated 1655. The earliest date for the use of 'excruciating' is 1664, but the earliest quote it gives is from 1833. |
#8
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Okay, I still don't understand the expression, but now I don't understand it a little less... Sorry, back to your thread. Ali "but I digress" Baba |
#9
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What? You've never heard of hot cross buns?
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#10
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Sic Buiscuit Disintegraf
Silas |
#11
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According to Wikipedia, (I know, not the best source) "Most scholars believe that Jesus spoke Aramaic with some Hebrew, and possibly Greek". But I'm curious, wouldn't he have also spoken Latin, as the Romans were the dominant power in that area at that time.
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#12
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From what I have read and been told, Latin was mainly used in official circles. Greek was the common language of the Roman Empire and was the most widely undertstood. Thus Jesus probably spoke Greek (to what extent can never be known) as well as Aramaic.
The New Testament was written in Greek, admittedly mostly by people with a lot of education (Luke was a doctor and Paul had received a good jewish eduction). If the writers of the NT spoke and wroter Greek then Jesus probably did. |
#13
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To follow up on Andrew's comment, I recall reading that Greek was the prevalent language in the Eastern provinces of the Roman Empire since the area around the Eastern Mediterranean had been part of Alexander's Empire. After Alexander's death, his empire was divided by 4 of his generals with Palestine being taken by Ptolemy (as part of his Egyptian kingdom). Throughout much of the Roman Republic's history (and for at least the Empire's first century), Greek was spoken widely (the Greeks had developed a number of colonies around much of the Mediterranean, in parts of modern Spain and France, which would later be absorbed by Rome).
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#14
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#15
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#16
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I must confess that of all the images of Jesus I have seen, I honestly don't recall him ever being blond - he's always got some variant of brown hair, usually medium to dark brown. I'm sure I've probably seen a blond Jesus before, but it's so rare that it's hardly what I picture in my mind when I think of Jesus.
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#17
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The joke is that Americans have sort of "adopted" Jesus as their "homeboy" ( ![]() So, in the spirit of fun, we've taken the logic a few steps farther. ETA: In fairness, the trend of a white Jesus did start before Americans. They just ran with it. |
#18
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What I recall of what I've been told is that Greek was the language of learned people and scholars. (thus Luke and Paul spoke Greek, yes.) Latin was the vulgar language of soldiers. Educated Romans would have spoken Greek.
Jesus probably spoke Aramaic, which would have been the common language of Jews, and possibly also Greek. That's the way I understood it. |
#19
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