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Old 03 June 2016, 07:49 PM
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thorny locust thorny locust is offline
 
Join Date: 27 April 2007
Location: Upstate NY
Posts: 9,810
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sylvanz View Post
I found this article online.
From that link:

Quote:
a pubis that was often curiously devoid of both hair and any indication of a vulva. Lack of pubic hair can be explained by the common Greek practice of depilation, but the lack of visible genitalia is much more telling. In a culture known for carefully sculpting male genitals, all while imbuing them with deep reasoning, why shy away from a simple indication of a cleft?
There indeed is exactly what bothers me.

And the article seems to me to indicate that I have indeed got reason to be bothered:

Quote:
Most scholars shun the idea that a realistic pubis was seen as aesthetically unappealing, and the most prominent theories today center around female genitalia being viewed as sexually aggressive. Women being aggressive, let alone sexually aggressive, was heavily discouraged and punished in Greek society. [ . . . ] In the words of Beth Cohen describing the ideal citizen, “this human male’s beauty and goodness, indeed his Greekness, both in life and art, was defined in opposition to that which was neither ‘beautiful’, nor ‘good’, nor free, nor Greek, nor male, nor human, and so on”.
The women's genitals aren't there, but the men's are, because the male genitals were defined as good and proper, but the women's were defined as being wrong, improper, perhaps not even human.
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