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Old 15 February 2018, 08:31 PM
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GenYus234 GenYus234 is online now
 
Join Date: 02 August 2005
Location: Mesa, AZ
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Are you seriously arguing that it was not offensive when it was used to describe a people who were almost universally regarded as inherently inferior? ETA: Note that the inferiority of black people was often used to justify slavery and suppression of their rights.

Also, notice the very key phrase "deliberate insult". Quite different than saying it could be used without insult.

Also, you clipped the description from Oxford:
Quote:
Used by people who are not black as a relatively neutral (or occasionally positive) term, with no specifically hostile intent.
Quots. 1608, 1788, etc., expressing patronizing views, reflect underlying attitudes rather than a hostile use of the word itself.[bolding mine]
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