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Old 29 August 2018, 03:15 PM
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GenYus234 GenYus234 is online now
Join Date: 02 August 2005
Location: Mesa, AZ
Posts: 26,685

Originally Posted by Mouse View Post
Because remember the Founding Fathers never meant for most of us to be able to vote at all. They would be horrified not only because the modern era has women and PoC voting, but also, the societal riffraff as well.
Speaking of things often repeated, but not quite correct...

Women were specifically given the right to vote in New Jersey voting laws as far back as 1776. Delaware, Connecticut, and Rhode Island also included women, but not explicitly. Delaware, Maryland, New York, New Hampshire, Pennsylvania, and Massachusetts allowed free black men to vote by the 1780's.

The Founding Fathers only felt the vote should belong to what amounts to the 1%. The idea that everyone of all economic levels from Jeff Bezos down to some homeless bum passed out in a gutter, gets to vote and have a say in how the government is run, would horrify them.
By the 1780's about 60 to 90% of the adult male population of the United States could vote. Not so universal as today, but far from only the elite being able to vote.

Both Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson were in favor of extending the right to vote. In Jefferson's case, he felt it should be open to every permanent inhabitant of the United States.

There were debates during the conventions on what voting rights should be. In the end, they did what they did with most every other subject of contention, they left it up to the individual states.


Note that the founding fathers may not have intended me* to be voting for President either. The majority of electors were chosen by the state legislature for many of the first Presidential elections.

* White, landowning male.

Last edited by GenYus234; 29 August 2018 at 03:26 PM.
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